- it seems three utterances take place in
the
light, within the first three hours (9am - 12noon):
- Father, forgive "them", for they know not what they do
- Verily I say unto thee, to day "shall thou" be with me
in paradise
- "Woman", behold thy son.... Behold thy "mother"
- four utterances then take place in darkness, within the next three
hours (12noon - 3pm)
- "My God, My God", why hast thou forsaken me (is spoken
with a "loud" voice)
- I "thirst"
- It is "finished" (is spoken with a "loud" voice)
- Father, into thy "hands" I "commend" my "Spirit" (is
spoken with a 'loud" voice)
- "My God, My God" suggests
twain Gods is
one too many , resulting in feeling "forsaken"
(note:
JC does
not say such, but rather quotes
the Psalmist, to denote twain = forsaken)
- "woman" is derogatory since woman, being deceived, was in
the transgression: 1Tim 2:14
(it is also woman [allegory: church] who first says a dble
"Amen, amen" to blessed + cursed)
- Father, forgive "them"... seems to denote only
them need forgiving, but yet such is contrary
to: to wit,
that God was
in "Christ"... not
imputing their trespasses unto them (2Cor 5:19).
- Note: "shall thou" in "today
shall thou be with me in
paradise" is a
question
, not a statement.
- Regarding "it is finished", the work the Father gave him
to do gets "finished" (
teleioo)
before the cross, even before he got
arrested (John 17:4); so what(?) then is "finished" (
teleo) in John 19:30
that was not already "finished" in John 17:4? In thinking about such,
consider Genesis 2 where both "finished" and "ended" occur prior to
God "rested", and in the Strong's concordance,
"finished" and "ended"
mean the same thing. Perhaps, concerning the law, he first "finished"
telling
the truth about it
(as Jesus), and then "ended" it (as Christ: the end of the
law).
- Regarding "Father, into thy hands I commend my Spirit", there's
a difference between plural hands (Lk 23:46) and singular hand (Ps
31:5), also between
commit and commend, also spirit of truth and err; not to mention
between my Father (merciful) and your Father (merciless) in Matthew
6:15 "But
if ye forgive not men their trespasses, neither will your Father
forgive your trespasses". To wit "that" God was in Christ ... not
imputing their
trespasses unto them. There's also a difference between your Father
and
your Father which is in heaven in such things are an allegory, and
Abraham is also called our Father. And let us not forget to consider it
is
a
fearful
thing to fall, into the "hands" of the living God (Hebrews 10:31)...
noting
the theme of Heb 10 is to clarify
law cannot make the comers
thereunto
perfect, and law is allegorical for
sacrifice,
what
that
God will
not have (not then, not now, not ever), in his immutable will.
- There's a difference between
"he saith"
& "saith he" , also
"Jesus
Christ" & "Christ Jesus" ; also between "come"
and "go", am I and I am , in and out, fwd and bwd, BC and AD. One seems
to be
mirrorly the reverse of another one; one
a statement, another a question.
- he
cried (perhaps described in Heb 5:7), and notably
with a
loud (law) voice
- he "gave up the ghost" (but didn't die, except to law, which is to
become alive unto
God )
- so many Marys: some looking on from afar (2 Marys); some who stood
near (3 Marys)
- two thieves (perhaps two lawyers... ha, ha, since they are referred
to as transgressors: where no law there no transgression: Rom 4:15);
and they are
on
"his" left and right (see Mt 25:31-46 re "his" left and right) yet both
are
thieves and both are transgressors ??
Think
about it.
- In John 17:4, JC talks of having "finished" (past tense) the work his
Father gave him to do ... after saying in Jn 16:33 that he'd overcome
the world. So, before he was even arrested (Jn 18) or went to the cross
(Jn
19), whatever work his Father gave him to do (He taketh away the first
that he may establish the second) was finished (made perfect,
completed,
accomplished). God did not send his Son to condemn (law) the
world: Jn 3:17, nay, not this, but rather that: the world
through him might be
saved (from such
law, sin, and death).
- Talk about knowing your script. Here's Jesus hanging on the cross
(ouch), knowing all things were now accomplished (finished), but he
didn't blurt out "it is finished". No. He's got another line to say,
and that
the scripture might be fulfilled: "I thirst". What scripture gets
fulfilled by such a line? Probably Psalm 69:21b: "and in my thirst they
gave me vinegar to drink". Can you imagine hanging naked on a cross
with a crown of thorns on your head and being concerned about saying
you thirst, on queue, knowing they're gonna give you vinegar, just so
what's written by David in Psalm 69:21 might be fulfilled? Funny thing
is, he received the vinegar, and from a full vessel which was set
there, just waiting for him to say: " I thirst ". But when they
gave him the vinegar + gall in Matthew 27:34, or the wine
+
myrrh in Mark 15:23, he received it not. I guess he liked his vinegar
and/or wine "pure". And was it not JC who said to the woman at the
well: if you drink this water you'll thirst again, but if ya drink what
I have you'll never thirst again... so in saying: "I thirst", what
is he saying?
- the superscription in three languages (Greek, Latin, Hebrew): a
"superscription" also was written over him (Lk 23), set up over him as
his "accusation" (Mt 27:37: "the superscription of his accusation" (Mk
15:26): "THIS IS [JESUS] THE KING OF THE JEWS "(Matthew 27:37; Mark
15:26; Luke 23:38). "This"(law) is the king of the Jews... but looking
at Romans 9:31, it seems they all
tried and also all failed, for 4,000 yrs, by such a king... perhaps a
schoolmaster witch failed every student (as in Heb 7:23 and Heb 11: 13,
39). In the birth of salvation story, which now globally accounts two
contrary times
going in opposite directions from such a point: <- bwd BC
<-
CJ | JC ->
AD
fwd ->
we learn wise men came, from the
east unto the middle east, to worship he that is born: "King of
the Jews" (Matthew 2). So, we have he that is born "King of the Jews"
being crucified (hanged) on a cross (dead tree) as "King of the Jews",
as requested by the Jews,
who perceived their king to be a malefactor (Jn 18:30), and who wanted
such
killed, but by their own law weren't allowed to put any man to death
lawfully. Let's also remember Jews under the law at Sinai well said the
law should not be spoken to them again: Deut 5:25; Deut 18:16; Heb
12:19, and the gospel of Christ: "the end of the law" is to the Jew
first: Acts ; Rom 1:16.
- the superscription (a sign): "This" is "Jesus": "King of the Jews".
Note: it does not say King of Kings, but King of the Jews =
Law
. (note: King(Grace) of Kings(Grace + Law) = Grace; and His grace is
the clear winner take all in the end of such a
Revelation shewdown:
- " It is finished " - " It " ?... In
review, we learned the work God gave JC was finished before the cross
even before he got arrested. We also learned JC is both author and
"finisher" of faith. So, the work God gave him, that the world
"through" him might be saved,
is finished, and faith is also finished. Another thing in the gospel
according to John, is that JC knew all things were accomplished
(finished) before
he said I thirst. So the work is finished, faith is finished, and all
things are accomplished (finished), whatever all things are. All three
of such
are finished, and even before the resurrection part of Easter. Go
figure (what's exhorted in Mt 9:13)..
- Isn't it odd, that even before the cross, even before JC got
arrested,
he said God said the work was finished? Isn't it odd, that before he
said
"it is finished" on the cross, it says in the gospel according to John
he
knew all things were accomplished (finished)? Isn't it odd, that when
speaking of a time after the cross in Matthew 24, even though the work
was finished before the cross, even though he knew all things were
accomplished before he said it is finished, even though he said it is
finished on the cross,
he also said: "but
the
end is not yet" (Mt 24:6; Mk 13:7; Lk 21:9). I
wonder what end he's talking about? If only what began
can end, then what shall end when we get to the end?
Plug a parking meter and watch time for such law start counting down to
expired.
Turn
the dial on your stove timer and watch time start counting down.
Evidently (based on evidence), time has begin and
end, but eternity has neither.
- We had a scary dual count down of time in the last millennium. It
started 3 1/2 yrs (42 mos) before the end of the millennium (in 1996),
and one part of such a dual count down had a scary Y2K fear worldwide.
One of two
such
ends was
a false alarm, and pretty much came to naught, other than to bless many
of
our governing facilities with new computers and/or upgrades. And what a
coincidence the time period of such a false alarm was the same as the
time period of
great tribulation sow(2Pet 2:22) many bible thumpers talk about, such
as in Rev 11:2
and
13:5, which may, or may not, be two different periods, and perhaps one
is false.
- False alarms are not new. When I was born, on the other side of the
world, and the moment Israel became a
nation again in May 1948, religious legalists began to sow a forty year
false
alarm concept about the parable of the fig tree (Israel). But 1988 came
and
went without incidence. Israel and I turned 40 together (a generation
thing), and both
sorely
troubled. We also turned 50 together (a jubilee thing), but I was no
longer
sorely troubled. I had my jubilee.
As Daniel of old was finally told to shut up, I
shut
up concerning night visions. Since then I've had light visions of the
day
(light) of God we ought to be looking for, hastening unto (2Pet 3),
especially
the rest (peace) of the 7th day, the day (light) of God having no
mention of both evening and morning, but mention of the host of
them being
finished (utterly dissolved without a trace) and also mention of God
ended blessed and sanctified prior to mention of God rested.
- Have we begun a black sabbath, another millennium, or perhaps the
eternal day of God? In John 1 and 2 the third day is also the seventh,
if counting (let him that hath understanding count). And in 2Pet 3 we
seem to have an allegorical comparison of two last days. In Genesis 2,
after the sixth day, we have both "finished" and "ended"
prior to God rested on a blessed and sanctified day. And on such a
seventh
day, there's no mention of evening and morning as there was at the end
of
six other days. Hmmmmm. What got finished after the sixth day? I won't
go
into such just now, but perhaps just mention that with one word:
"Thus",
some stuff got "finished". And the word "finished" there seems to mean
utterly
dissolved without a trace, no ashes remaining, no grease spot, no
trace.
- Such things are an "
allegory"
(Gal 4:24), and written aforetime for our "
learning"
(Rom 15:4). Go
ye and
learn what meaneth "
I will have mercy,
and not sacrifice", then come to repentance.
- Isn't it odd that although JC is both author (begin) and finisher
(end)
of faith in Heb 12:2, He's only noted as the "author" (
prototype)
of
eternal salvation
in Heb 5:9. And his priesthood is called of God "after" the order of
Melchisedec, kinda like Melchisidec is the before and JC is the after
of before and
after
priesthoods.
Hebrews also reveals the problem with the before was
such
Melchisedec type priests all died of infirmity. They neither entered in
themselves nor
allowed
others in thereby (for it's all or none at all with God hath no respect
of persons). In comparison
C of JC
neither died nor had infirmity, and through him all may enter. I
guess
the obvious quest i on here, is will eternal salvation ever get
finished?
And by whom? Eternal salvation obviously began (got authored), which
implies
it also has an end. But eternity has neither begin nor end, no
beginning
of days nor end of life (death). It is (never was nor will be,
but is). God is. Grace is. So then what the finish
of
eternal salvation but the end of law.
There seem to be
two sorts of
salvation in the Bible, temporal and
eternal. We find all those saved out of Egypt in Jude 5 had the
temporal sort of salvation. Sure they got saved, but then also got
destroyed
afterward. Obviously not the sort of end we want. Who'd want such a
dead end? It's old, dinosaurish, faulty, hath no part in a living God,
of the living.
Saved (grace) + destroyed (law) = a dead end. God our Saviour will have
all men saved.
Proof of the pudding: Acts 2:34 David is
not ascended
into the heaven
s. Hebrews 11: these all died & rec'd
not
the promise. Jude 5: those saved by grace + law got destroyed afterward.
Look around. Know anybody yet who made it to heaven besides C of
JC?
Enoch? He was
not found (not
found = lost). Moses? No Enter (died and received
not the promise:
Heb 11)! Lazareth?
Lived,
died,
got resurrected, then died again, and went to the bosom of Abraham.
No
mercy in the bosom
of Abraham, not for the dead rich guy nor for his living relatives. So
it's
safe to assume Lazareth is not in graceland, for graceland,
King
thereof, is
merciful
(Lk 6:36), and to
all
("there is
no respect of persons
with God"). The list goes on and on, but it's the same scenario for
all, all
but
the one who authored eternal salvation:
Christ of
Jesus->Christ:
the end of the law, and eternal life of eternal salvation, which
is
saved and
aware of what from.
POINT: the blessed of blessed + cursed = accursed (Gal 1:9) is a bad
ending.
POINT: the saved of saved + destroyed (Jude 5) = destruction (Mt 7:13),
is a bad ending.
POINT: the life of life + death = dead end is a bad ending.
The real
question
is, is it the end people fear, or the endlessness of
this madness, the madness of grace + law, the life + death, the dead
end thereof? Is there any fear in heaven if God is love is perfect (Mt
5:48),
which is merciful (Lk 6:36). And perfect (merciful) love (God) casts
out fear? Why? Because fear hath torment. And what the source of fear
hath
torment? Could it be law worketh wrath perhaps? The end we're looking
for,
hastening unto,
is eternal salvation (begun by JC) being finished
by the end of law, which has begin
and end. Such an end began nearly 2,000 yrs ago, but it takes some time
to
become
aware
of it, finish eternal salvation. How much time does eternity have?
None.
How
much time do we have? All the time we need. How much time do we have to
solve
the mystery? The mystery is already solved, and made known unto us .
The will of God is made known unto us. The mystery of his will is made
known unto us (Eph
1:9). Eternal salvation has already begun (been
authored). All
that remains is for it to get finished. Yet it's already finished, so
it's a
matter of
awareness.
.................................................................................................................................
Here's my (Daniel Miles)
best guess
(so far) of the
ordering of seven last utterances:
1. Father, forgive
them,
for they know not
what they do
2. Verily, I say unto thee, to day shalt thou be with me in
paradise ... 6th hr(Lk 23:44)
3. Woman, behold thy
son ("he saith")
... Behold thy mother ("
saith he")
4. My God, my God,
why hast thou forsaken me...
Midst: "loud" voice, 9th
hr(Mt 27:46; Mk 15)
5. I thirst
6. It is finished
... with a "
loud"
voice(Lk 23:46)... Pst - a "
loud"
voice calls from "
behind"
7. Father, into thy hands I
commend my Spirit... with a "loud" voice (Lk 23:46), a "thus"
The reasoning a very l-o-n-g story, involves
many
allegoric
things, such as it's a
menorah
seven with
Gods
(plural)
in the center lamp (Midst), resulting in feeling "forsaken", and
thereby the
seventh (result) is as
falling, into the hands (plural) of such a living God as Grace + Law on
"high": Hebrews ("mind not high things":
Rom 12:16 and
"be not high-minded":
Rom 11:20; 1Tim 6:17, as
"high-minded" is among "un-holy" things listed in 2Tim 3's "
from such turn away"),
witch is both a "fall"(
Gal 5: 4) and a
"
fearful"(
Heb 10:31)
thing rather than a perfect and merciful thing.
Not to mention "it is finished" is cried with a "loud" voice in
"
darkness",
and perhaps "again". Perhaps such a loud (law) voice,
cries loudly "again" because instead of having living water, or even
pure vinegar this time of two (this/that) times he had vinegar at
Easter; And perhaps firstly
not thirst of not thirst and thirst. He did say "I thirst" instead of I
thirst not, as he told
the woman at the well she would not thirst again if she had the living
water he had. Go figure.
Not to mention when "it" (perhaps law = sin: Rom14:23->Gal3:12) is
"finished", it bringeth forth death (not life), as noted in James 1:15,
and death to all, as noted in "as
in Adam all die"; So perhaps it's better not to have such an
unclarified "it(?)" be "finished" (of
two "finished"s
mentioned in John 17 & 19, the only "verily, verily" gospel account
also having two finisheds and two resurrections,. and end the seven
last utterances with such, which
could make such end the end mentioned in 1Cor 15:56; 2Cor 11:15; Heb
7:23; James 1:15; and Jude 5.
It is also not wise to get too
hung
up on the cross, not if "cursed is every one than hangeth on a tree".
Better
to go
through it,
through
Jesus ->
Christ, as going through a door way, in one
side and out the other... on to
victory... to perfection, as exhorted in Heb 6:1... or as through the
valley of the "shadow" (Heb 10:1) of death in Psalm 23, and
as if a journey from one mtn to mtn in Heb 12, God & Son
both
being on
Mt Sion (Grace),
not on Mt Sinai (Law)...
Note: The matter of the order of the utterances is not established nor
settled till we have
sufficient proofs
and
we all agree
(rather than
no
consensus among carnal people), as to what is
best
for
all, not
just good or even better for some only. So, I remain open to study,
and open to scrutiny, till I'm
fully
persuaded of the
exact
order of Seven Last Utterances, and what's in the Midst thereof; For if
Two Gods in
Midst: "
My God my God why hast thou forsaken
me", it's "
forsaken" rather
than "
I will never leave thee nor forsake thee" (
Hebrews 13:5).
Comments from readers are welcome: on our
public discussion
forum or privily via
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